\input vanilla.sty \magnification=1200 \baselineskip=20pt \nopagenumbers \centerline{\bf The University at Albany} \centerline{\bf Department of Mathematics and Statistics} \centerline{\bf Ph.D. Program} \centerline{\bf Preliminary Examination in Real Analysis} \centerline{\bf Wednesday, June 3, 1998} \bigskip \item{1.} State the following theorems: A. Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem. B. Fatou's lemma. C. Fubini's theorem. D. Egoroff's theorem. E. Radon-Nikodym theorem. \bigskip \item{2.} State and prove from first principles the Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem (in particular do not assume Fatou's lemma.) \bigskip \item{3.} Define what it means for a function, $f$, to be a Lebesgue measurable function. Prove that the sum of two Lebesgue measurable functions is a Lebesgue measurable function. \bigskip \item{4.} Prove that a real valued continuous function whose domain is a compact subset of the real numbers is uniformly continuous. \bigskip \item{5.} Let $f_n(x)$ be Lebesgue integrable functions on ${\bold{R}}$ such that $\dsize\sum^\infty_{n=1} \dsize\int^\infty_{-\infty} |f_n(x)|dx < \infty$. Prove that $f_n(x) \to 0$ almost everywhere as $n\to \infty$. \bigskip \item{6.} Let $\{a_{n,k}\} \subset {\bold{R}}$ with $|a_{n,k}|\leq 1$ for $n,k=1,2,3,\dots$ \ . Suppose that for each $n$, $\dsize\lim_{k\to \infty} a_{n,k}=0$. Let $p>1$. Show that $$\lim_{k\to \infty} \sum^\infty_{n=1} \frac{a_{n,k}}{n^p}=0 \ .$$ \bigskip \item{7.} Let $f_n(x)$ be Lebesgue integrable functions on $[0,1]$ such that for each $n=1,2,3,\dots$ $\|f_n\|_1=1$. Suppose that the Lebesgue measure of the support of $f_n$ tends to zero as $n$ tends to infinity. Let $p>1$: Show that $\|f_n\|_p$ tends to infinity as $n$ tends to infinity. \bigskip \item{8.} A. State the Vitali Covering Theorem. \itemitem{B.} Let $f(x)$ be a monotone increasing continuous function on $[0,1]$. Show that the set of $x$ where $f'(x)=\infty$ is a set of Lebesgue measure zero. (Hint: Use part A.) \bigskip \item{9.} Let $f$ and $g$ be non-negative Lebesgue integrable functions on $R$. Prove that $$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(x) \ g(x) \ dx = \int^\infty_0 \varphi(y) \ dy \ ,$$ where $\varphi(y) = \dsize\int_{A_y} g(x) \ dx$ and $$A_y=\{x: f(x) > y\} \ .$$ \bye