\input vanilla.sty \magnification=1200 \baselineskip=10pt \nopagenumbers \centerline{\bf{Department of Mathematics and Statistics}} \bigskip \centerline{\bf{Ph.D. Program}} \bigskip \centerline{\bf{Preliminary Examination in Real Analysis}} \bigskip \centerline{\bf{Tuesday, June 8, 1993}} \bigskip \flushpar Directions: Do all problems except possibly 7, which is an extra credit problem. The last question is meant to be a longer essay-type question and you should take more time and write more on it. It is suggested that you do this problem last. \bigskip \item{1.} Let $(X,B,\mu)$ be a measure space, and let $\{f_n\}$ be a sequence of measurable functions from $X$ into $\bold{R}$, such that $f_n\geq 0$, and $f_n\geq f_{n+1}$, $n=1,2,\dots$ Suppose \newline $\dsize\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_X f_n(x) \ d\mu(x) =0$. Show that $\dsize\lim_{n\to \infty} f_n=0$ a.e. on $X$. \bigskip \item{2.} Define the Cantor ternary set. \bigskip A. Prove that it has power of the continuum. \bigskip B. Prove that it has Lebesgue measure 0. \bigskip C. Prove that its characteristic function is Riemann integrable on [0,1]. \bigskip \item{3.} Let $A_1,A_2,\dots,A_n,\dots$ be a sequence of points of $R\times R$. Suppose there is a number $0r_n\}} \frac{1}{2^n} \ .$$ Compute $\dsize\int^1_0 f(x) \ dx$ in terms of $\{r_n\}$. \bigskip \item{8.} A. Write down the axioms for a measure space $(X,B,\mu)$. \bigskip B. Use your axioms to define the Lebesgue integral, $$\int_X f(x) \ d\mu(x) \ ,$$ \hskip20pt(for simplicity, it will be enough to do this problem only for \hskip20pt non-negative functions.) \bigskip C. Assume $0<\mu(X)<\infty$. Prove, using the axioms of part A and the definition of \hskip18pt part B, the following lemma (from which most of the convergence theorems follow \hskip18pt as an easy consequence). \bigskip Lemma: Let $\{f_n(x)\}$ be a sequence of integrable functions. Suppose there is a constant $M$ such that for all $x\in X$ and all $n$, $$0\leq f_n(x)\leq M<\infty$$ and there is a function $g(x)$ such that $\dsize\lim_{n\to \infty}f_n(x)=g(x)$ almost everywhere. Then $g(x)$ is integrable and $$\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_X f_n(x) \ d\mu(x) = \int_X g(x) \ d\mu(x) \ .$$ (The idea of the problem is to prove a convergence theorem from basic principles; in particular, Lebesgue dominated convergence or Fatou's lemma should not be used unless you have proved them from basic principles as part of this essay.) \bye